Cracking your first job interview isn’t just about what you studied — it’s also about how you think. That’s where aptitude tests come in.

Aptitude questions are a standard part of hiring processes, especially for entry-level roles. In fact, over 76% of companies rely on standardized aptitude tests to gauge a candidate’s competence and potential. These tests evaluate how quickly and logically you can solve problems, interpret data, and make decisions — all without relying on domain-specific knowledge.

For freshers, performing well on these tests can be a game-changer. Whether you’re aiming for a job in tech, finance, consulting, or even government exams, aptitude skills often form the first filter in recruitment. Regular practice not only sharpens your reasoning and time management but also builds confidence for high-pressure environments like competitive exams and campus placements.

This guide breaks down the most common types of aptitude questions you’re likely to face, along with tips and sample answers to help you prepare smartly and effectively.

Common Types of Aptitude Interview Questions for Freshers

Aptitude interview questions evaluate a candidate’s mental agility, logical thinking, and problem-solving skills. They're designed to assess how well you understand and analyze data, think critically, and make quick, effective decisions. These questions fall into various categories, each focusing on a specific skill set important for workplace success.

1. General Aptitude Questions

These assess basic reasoning and problem-solving ability. Topics often include sequencing, analogies, puzzles, and everyday situational challenges — testing your quick thinking and adaptability.

2. Quantitative Aptitude Questions

These focus on numerical ability and mathematical reasoning. Common topics include arithmetic, algebra, percentages, profit and loss, time and work, speed and distance, clocks and calendars, and data interpretation. They measure your ability to solve numerical problems accurately and efficiently.

3. Verbal Aptitude Questions

These test your command of the English language — including grammar, vocabulary, sentence structure, and comprehension. Key areas include sentence correction, synonyms/antonyms, and reading passages, assessing how effectively you understand and use written language.

4. Verbal Reasoning Questions

Verbal reasoning focuses more on logic-based interpretation of text. It includes critical reasoning, analogies, logical relationships, and inference-based reading — measuring how well you draw conclusions from written information.

5. Logical Reasoning Questions

These test analytical and logical thinking through patterns, sequences, analogies, and deductions. They're designed to assess your ability to identify relationships and solve structured problems logically.

6. Abstract Reasoning Questions

These involve interpreting patterns, shapes, and figures — such as mirror images, series completion, or spatial reasoning. They evaluate creative thinking and the ability to recognize trends in abstract data.

7. Non-Verbal Reasoning Questions

Similar to abstract reasoning, but specifically visual. These include identifying patterns, spatial arrangements, and figure sequences — useful for roles involving visual analysis, design, or spatial awareness.

8. Psychometric Aptitude Questions

These assess behavioral tendencies, emotional intelligence, and situational judgment. They're used to evaluate how you approach decisions, interact with others, and fit within a workplace culture.

Understanding aptitude interview categories is just the start! Topmate’s expert-led services, from mock interviews to mentorship, ensure you're fully prepared for every aspect of your interview process.

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With a deeper understanding of each type, let’s now explore some commonly asked general aptitude interview questions and how you can tackle them effectively.

General Aptitude Interview Questions for Freshers

General aptitude questions are a staple in interviews for freshers, serving as a litmus test for problem-solving abilities, logical thinking, and quick decision-making. These questions often blend elements of reasoning, common sense, and basic mathematics.

Here are a few general aptitude interview questions you can expect to encounter in an interview for freshers.

1. If you’re running in a race and overtake the third person, which position are you in now?

A. Second

B. First

C. Third

D. None of the above

Answer : C. Third

Explanation : By overtaking the third person, you assume their position. Therefore, you are now in their place, i.e., the third place.​

2. What is the correct arrangement of the following words?

Uttar Pradesh, Earth, India, Lucknow, Asia

A. Earth, Asia, India, Uttar Pradesh, Lucknow

B. Uttar Pradesh, Lucknow, India, Asia, Earth

C. Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, India, Asia, Earth

D. India, Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, Earth, Asia

Answer : A. Earth, Asia, India, Uttar Pradesh, Lucknow

Explanation : The correct geographical hierarchy structures locations from the largest to the smallest. Since in this case, the largest entity is Earth and Lucknow is the smallest entity, only option A is the correct answer.

3. Which odd number can be made even by taking away only one letter from it?

A. Three

B. Eleven

C. Seven

D. Nine

Answer : C. Seven

Explanation : By simply removing a single (one) letter ‘S’ from the word ‘Seven’, the resultant word becomes ‘Even’, which is what the question asked to do. Therefore, the answer is seven, making option C the correct answer.

4. Mansi’s one-story house is completely decorated in pink. Her bedroom is baby pink in colour, kitchen is fuschia pink in colour, living room is blush pink in colour, and washroom is bubblegum pink in colour. What colour are the stairs?

A. Baby Pink

B. Blush Pink

C. Fushchia Pink

D. Bubblegum Pink

E. None of the above

Answer : E. None of the above

Explanation : Since Mansi lives in a single story house, there aren’t any stairs in her house. Therefore, none of the first four colours will be the answer. 

5. An electric train is moving north at the speed of 75 km/hr while a wind is blowing to the east at 5 km/hr. In which direction will the smoke blow?

A. East

B. West

C. South

D. None of the above

Answer : D. None of the above

Explanation : Since the train in the question is an electric train, it doesn’t produce any smoke. Therefore, none of the first three options will be valid, and option D is the correct answer.

6. Replace the ‘?’ with an appropriate option.

A. 3

B. 7

C. 9

D. 5

Answer : B. 7

Explanation : The number in the central bubble in each row is the difference between the sum of numbers on its left side and the sum of numbers on its right side. For instance, the number 8 in the middle row is the result of (5 + 7 + 5) - (3 + 6 + 0). By that logic, the answer will be 9 - 2 which is equivalent to 7. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.  

7. Can the pockets in your old pants be empty but still have something in them?

A. Yes

B. No

C. Can’t be certain

Answer : A. Yes

Explanation : Since the pants are old, there are very high chances of them having holes in them. Therefore, even when the pockets are empty, they still have holes; hence they still have something in them.

Now that we've explored general aptitude in-depth, it’s time to dive into questions that test your ability to reason through complex visual patterns and concepts.

Abstract Reasoning Aptitude Interview Questions for Freshers

These tests often require you to think outside the box, challenge your assumptions, and employ critical thinking skills. These questions test not only your ability to reason logically but also your creativity and ability to approach problems from different angles.

Here are a few abstract reasoning aptitude interview questions you might be asked during the interview.

1. What never asks a question but always gets answered?

A. Teacher

B. Riddle

C. Children

D. Doorbell

Answer : D. Doorbell

Explanation : This question tests your lateral thinking. A doorbell fits the description perfectly: it never asks a question, but it always gets answered when someone rings it. It's a straightforward, yet outside-the-box answer compared to more literal answers like ‘teacher’ or ‘children’, who actually do ask questions.

2. You enter a completely dark, windowless room. There is an oil lamp, a candle, and some wood in the room but you only have a single match. What do you light up first to make the room bright?

A. Oil Lamp

B. Candle

C. Wood

D. Matchstick

Answer : B. Candle

Explanation : This is a common riddle that tests your attention to detail. You’d be tempted to go with the answer D since a matchstick is indeed the first thing you need to light. But, since the question specifically mentions ‘making the room bright’, a single matchstick wouldn’t have that capacity, and so it can’t be the correct answer. Considering the other options, lighting a candle is the easiest and quickest way to bring light into the room. Therefore, option B becomes the correct answer.

Now that we’ve covered abstract reasoning, let’s move on to verbal aptitude interview questions for freshers that challenge your verbal skills.

Verbal Aptitude Interview Questions for Freshers

Verbal aptitude tests evaluate a range of skills, including grammar, vocabulary, reading comprehension, sentence structure, and logical reasoning. As a fresher, excelling in verbal aptitude is crucial for you as it reflects your ability to communicate effectively, comprehend information, and think critically.

Let’s delve into a few commonly asked verbal aptitude interview questions for freshers in 2025. 

1. Read each sentence fragment carefully to identify if it has any grammatical error. If there is an error, choose the letter corresponding to the part that contains the error. If there is no error, select option 'D'.

A. Although I’ve known him for

B. a while, I still can’t believe

C. how much stubborn he is.

D. No errors

Answer : C. how much stubborn he is.

Explanation : The phrase ‘how much stubborn he is’ is grammatically incorrect. The correct expression should be ‘how stubborn he is’. The word ‘much’ is unnecessary and incorrect in this context when describing a quality like ‘stubborn’. Therefore, the error lies in part C, making it the correct answer.

2. Choose the correct meaning of the given idiom.

To smell a rat

A. To get a bad smell from a dead rat

B. To suspect foul dealings

C. To foresee an oncoming plague

D. None of the above

Answer : B. To suspect foul dealings

Explanation : The idiom ‘to smell a rat’ means to suspect that something is wrong or that there is deceit involved. It originates from the idea that rats are sneaky and can be detected by their smell. Therefore, option B is the correct interpretation.

3. The following sentence is in active voice. From the given alternatives, choose the best passive voice sentence that can replace it. 

Who is creating this mess?

A. By whom has this mess been created?

B. Who has been creating this mess?

C. By whom is this mess being created?

D. By whom this mess has been created?

Answer : C. By whom is this mess being created?

Explanation : To convert the active voice sentence ‘Who is creating this mess?’ into passive voice, we rearrange the sentence to focus on the action and the recipient. The correct passive voice construction is ‘By whom is this mess being created?’ This maintains the original meaning while following passive voice structure. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

4. Substitute the given sentence with a single word.

That which cannot be believed

A. Incredible

B. Unimaginable

C. Implausible

D. Incredulous 

Answer : A. Incredible

Explanation : The phrase ‘that which cannot be believed’ describes something that is so extraordinary or difficult to believe that it is considered incredible. The word ‘incredible’ directly captures this meaning, making it the most appropriate choice. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

5. Two words which have a certain relationship are given below. Out of the four given alternatives, choose another pair of words that have the same relationship.

Lions: Pride

A. Flowers: Flock

B. Penguins: Colony

C. Dogs: Horde

D. Ducks: Cluster 

Answer : B. Penguins: Colony

Explanation : The relationship between ‘Lions’ and ‘Pride’ is that a group of lions is called a pride. Similarly, a group of penguins is called a colony. Therefore, the correct pair is Penguins : Colony, making option B the correct answer.

6. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Zakir Khan’s comedy style __1__ observational humor with heartfelt storytelling, delivered in a casual, conversational tone. He __2__ Hindi and Urdu expressions to reflect on middle-class Indian life, relationships, and personal experiences. His iconic “sakht launda” persona captures emotional restraint __3__ a comic twist, making his content both funny and deeply __4__ to young Indian audiences.

6a) Which word can replace the blank (1)?

A. mixes

B. blends

C. combines

D. merges 

Answer : B. blends 

Explanation : ‘Blends’ is the most suitable word as it conveys the idea of combining two elements, observational humor and storytelling, in a seamless manner. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

6b) Which word can replace the blank (2)?

A. uses

B. employs

C. implements

D. applies

Answer : A. uses

Explanation : ‘Uses’ is the appropriate word here, meaning he uses Hindi and Urdu expressions effectively in his comedy. Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

6c) Which word can replace the blank (3)?

A. for

B. by

C. with

D. against

Answer : C. with

Explanation : ‘With’ is the correct preposition to indicate the manner in which emotional restraint is combined with a comic twist. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

6d) Which word can replace the blank (4)?

A. related 

B. relatable

C. relating

D. relate 

Answer : B. relatable

Explanation : ‘Relatable’ is the correct adjective to describe content that resonates with young Indian audiences. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

7. A word in the sentence given below is underlined. Replace that word with another word which has the OPPOSITE meaning as the underlined word. If none of the antonyms apply, select option 'D'.

The manager decided to consolidate all regional reports into an easy-to-understand summary.

A. Synthesize 

B. Disperse

C. Integrate

D. None of the above

Answer : B. Disperse

Explanation : The word ‘consolidate’ means to combine or bring together. The opposite of this action is to disperse, which means to scatter or spread out. Therefore, ‘disperse’ is the correct antonym, making option B the correct answer.

8. The sentence fragment given below is followed by four more fragment options. Choose the sentence fragment that best completes the sentence. 

She likes to stay away from people…

A. because she’s a people’s person.

B. and people don’t like her.

C. but is very close to her dog, Snowy.

D. as she has a big group of friends.

Answer : C. but is very close to her dog, Snowy.

Explanation : The phrase ‘likes to stay away from people’ suggests a preference for solitude. This logically eliminates the options A, B, and D since they don’t gel well with the idea of solitude. The most logical continuation is that she is very close to her dog, indicating that she finds companionship in her pet rather than in people. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

9. The following sentence is written in direct speech. Choose the correct sentence from the options below that best represents the sentence, but in indirect speech.

She said to me, “I will help you prepare your presentation.”

A. She told me that she will help me with my presentation.

B. She said that she helps me with my presentation.

C. She told me that she would help me with my presentation.

D. She said that she will help me with my presentation.

Answer : C. She told me that she would help me with my presentation.

Explanation : In indirect speech, the future tense ‘will’ changes to ‘would’ to reflect the past reporting. The correct transformation is: ‘She told me that she would help me with my presentation’, making option C the correct answer.

10. Some parts of the sentence given below have been jumbled up. Rearrange these parts to make a meaningful sentence and choose the option that best corresponds to the correct sequence.

People who are 

L. often disregard and dismiss 

M. other people's problems 

O. too self-centered 

P. and needs

A. LPMO

B. OMLP

C. OLMP

D. MLOP

Answer : C. OLMP

Explanation : The correct sequence is ‘People who are too self-centered often disregard and dismiss other people's problems and needs’. This arrangement forms a coherent and meaningful sentence. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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11. A part of the sentence given below is underlined. Four alternatives to the underlined part are given under it, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. If the sentence doesn’t need improvement, select option 'D'.

He could not decide among the two laptops.

A. decide over

B. decide amidst

C. decide between

D. No improvement

Answer : C. decide between

Explanation : The correct phrase is ‘decide between’ when referring to choosing between two options. That’s because ‘among’ is used to denote a relationship or presence within a group of three or more entities. On the other hand, ‘between’ indicates a relationship between exactly two entities. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

12. Read each sentence fragment carefully to identify if it has any grammatical error. If there is an error, choose the letter corresponding to the part that contains the error. If there is no error, select option 'D'.

A. If I’m stressed out about 

B. something, I tend to have a 

C. hard time falling asleep.

D. No errors

Answer : D. No errors

Explanation : The sentence is grammatically correct. It properly uses the conditional ‘if’ to express a situation and its consequence, with appropriate verb tenses and structure. Therefore, the correct answer is option D.

13. A part of the sentence given below is underlined. Four alternatives to the underlined part are given under it, which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. If the sentence doesn’t need improvement, select option 'D'.

She passed away in the year 2017 at 2pm on 23rd September.

A. in the year 2017 on 23rd September at 2pm.

B. at 2pm on 23rd September in the year 2017.

C. on 23rd September in the year 2017 at 2pm.

D. No improvement

Answer : B. at 2pm on 23rd September in the year 2017.

Explanation : The most natural and grammatically correct phrasing is ‘at 2pm on 23rd September in the year 2017’. This option follows standard English conventions for date, time, and year placement, where the time typically comes first, followed by the date, and then the year. This structure is clearer and more conventional than the other alternatives. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

14. Two words which have a certain relationship are given below. Out of the four given alternatives, choose one word which can replace the ? in a way that the next pair also has the same relationship.

Arachnophobia : Spiders :: Trypophia : ? 

A. Night

B. Height 

C. Holes

D. Oceans 

Answer : C. Holes

Explanation : Arachnophobia refers to the fear of spiders. Similarly, trypophobia refers to the fear of holes or clusters of holes. The relationship between the words in both pairs is one of fear or phobia toward a specific object. This makes ‘holes’ the correct choice, and option C the correct answer.

15. A word in the sentence given below is underlined. Replace that word with another word which has the SAME meaning as the underlined word. If none of the synonyms apply, select option 'D'.

She has an insatiable desire for knowledge.

A. Unchanging

B. Relentless

C. Unsatisfiable

D. None of the above

Answer : C. unsatisfiable

Explanation : Insatiable means impossible to satisfy, which is most accurately conveyed by ‘unsatisfiable’. The word unsatisfiable indicates something that cannot be satisfied, fulfilled, or resolved, which fits perfectly with the meaning of insatiable. ‘Relentless’ comes close, but unsatisfiable more directly conveys the idea of an unending drive. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

16. The following sentence is in passive voice. From the given alternatives, choose the best active voice sentence that can replace it. 

The report must be submitted by the end of the day.

A. You must by the end of the day submit your report.

B. You must submit the report by the end of the day.

C. You, by the end of the day, will have to submit the report.

D. You must be submitting the report by the end of the day.

Answer : B. You must submit the report by the end of the day.

Explanation : The active voice version of the sentence should focus on the subject performing the action. ‘You must submit the report by the end of the day’ is the simplest and clearest way to express the same idea in an active voice, making it the best choice. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

17. The following sentence is written in indirect speech. Choose the correct sentence from the options below that best represents the sentence, but in direct speech.

He said that he got promoted in his company.

A. He said, “He got promoted in his company.”

B. He said, “I am getting promoted in my company.”

C. He told, “He got promoted in my company.”

D. He said, “I got promoted in my company.”

Answer : D. He said, “I got promoted in my company.”

Explanation : To convert indirect speech to direct speech, the pronoun ‘he’ becomes ‘I’ to reflect what the speaker actually said. Therefore, the correct transformation is ‘I got promoted in my company’, and the correct answer is option D. 

18. A part of the sentence given below is underlined. Replace that phrase with one of the appropriate idioms given below. If none of the idioms apply, select option 'D'.

When will there be peace and prosperity in the world? That will never happen!

A. Once in a blue moon

B. It costs an arm and a leg

C. When pigs fly

D. None of the above

Answer : C. When pigs fly

Explanation : ‘When pigs fly’ is an idiom that literally means something will never happen. It fits the context of the sentence, where the speaker is expressing doubt that peace and prosperity will ever occur. Therefore, the correct answer is option C. 

19. Substitute the given sentence with a single word.

A state of disagreement or lack of harmony among people

A. Stability

B. Synergy

C. Discord

D. Tranquility 

Answer : C. Discord

Explanation : Discord refers to a lack of agreement or harmony, especially among people. It perfectly captures the meaning of the given sentence. The other options refer to harmony or peace, which does not align with the idea of disagreement. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

20. The sentence fragment given below is followed by four more fragment options. Choose the sentence fragment that best completes the sentence.

He doesn’t drink coffee…

A. because caffeine is good for the body.

B. since he hates the taste.

C. so he loves to go on coffee dates.

D. and likes the taste very much.

Answer : B. since he hates the taste. 

Explanation : The most logical reason someone wouldn’t drink coffee is because they dislike the taste. ‘Since he hates the taste’ is a clear and sensible explanation, making it the best choice, and option B the correct answer.

After testing your language proficiency, it’s time to take your cognitive skills to the next level with logical reasoning aptitude questions for freshers!

Logical Reasoning Aptitude Interview Questions for Freshers

They’re all about solving complex problems, identifying patterns, making inferences, and applying reasoning to find the correct solutions. Diverse topics such as number series, letter sequences, puzzles, and analogy questions are tested under them.

Let’s explore a few commonly asked logical reasoning aptitude questions that you can come across during interviews. 

1. What number will correctly complete the following series?

54, 52, 48, 42, 34, ?

A. 27

B. 24

C. 22

D. 6

Answer : B. 24

Explanation : Looking at the given series, we can observe the pattern: 54 → 52 → 48 → 42 → 34
Upon examining the differences, we find:

• 54 - 52 = 2
• 52 - 48 = 4
• 48 - 42 = 6
• 42 - 34 = 8

The differences between consecutive numbers are increasing by 2 each time. The next step in the pattern would be to subtract 10 from 34, i.e., 34 - 10 = 24. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

2. In the series given below, how many letters are there which are preceded by a symbol and followed by a number?

5 H 9 # 0 W % I & N 3 9 $ C 7 K *

A. 1

B. 0

C. 2

D. 3

Answer : D. 3

Explanation : Upon breaking down the series and identifying the elements that meet the criteria: preceded by a symbol and followed by a number, we find.

• # precedes I and is followed by 9
• % precedes I and is followed by 3
• $ precedes C and is followed by 7

Therefore,  there are 3 occurrences where a symbol precedes a letter and a number follows, making option D the correct answer.

3. Of all the given words, which word does not belong with the others?

A. Potato

B. Celery

C. Beetroot

D. Carrot

Answer : B. Celery

Explanation : The words represent different types of vegetables. Potato, beetroot, and carrot are root vegetables, meaning they grow underground. Celery, on the other hand, is a stem vegetable, as it grows above the ground. Thus, Celery does not belong with the others because it is not a root vegetable, and the correct answer is option B. 

4. If P is 20% more than Q, Q is 20% more than R, R is 15% greater than S, and S is 300, what is the value of P as a whole number?

A. 452

B. 464

C. 448

D. 463

Answer : A. 452

Explanation : Given that R is 15% greater than S, and S is 300, we can write:

R = S + 15% of S = 300 + 0.15  300 = 345

Now, given that Q is 20% more than R, we can write:

Q = R + 20% of R = 345 + 0.20  345 = 414

And finally, given that P is 20% more than Q, we can write:

P = Q + 20% of Q = 414 + 0.20  414 = 496.8

Therefore, rounding to the nearest whole number, P = 452, and option A is the correct answer. 

5. In a certain code, ‘SUNDAY’ is written as ‘TVOEBZ’. How is ‘KITCHEN’ written in the same code?

A. JHSBGDM

B. LHRAFFM

C. LJUDIFO

D. JKUBGBO

Answer : C. LJUDIFO

Explanation : Looking at the code transformation from ‘SUNDAY’ to ‘TVOEBZ’, it’s evident that each letter is replaced with the letter succeeding it. 

Thus, S → T (shifted by +1), U → V (shifted by +1), N → O (shifted by +1), D → E (shifted by +1), A → B (shifted by +1), and Y → Z (shifted by +1). 

Now, applying the same pattern to ‘KITCHEN’, we find K → L (+1), I → J (+1), T → U (+1), C → D (+1), H → I (+1), E → F (+1), and N → O (+1). 

Therefore, ‘KITCHEN’ is written as LJUDIFO in the code, making option C the correct answer. 

6. Given below is a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. Assume everything in the statement is true and on the basis of the information, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows.

The remote areas in Gujarat are suffering from drought.

I - The government must send water, food, and rations for the people and animals there.

II - Financial aid must immediately be sent to everyone suffering over there.

A. Only I must follow

B. Only II must follow

C. Either I or II must follow

D. Neither I nor II must follow

E. Both I and II must follow

Answer : A. Only I must follow

Explanation : Course of action I addresses the immediate and urgent needs of the affected areas (water, food, rations), which directly relates to alleviating the crisis caused by the drought. On the other hand, action II, while helpful in the long term, does not directly address the immediate needs. Thus, only action I logically follows based on the situation at hand, and option A is the correct answer.

7. Given below are three statements. Based on the first two statements, determine whether the third statement is true, false, or uncertain.

Ritika is older than Bhumi.

Purvi is older than Ritika.

Bhumi is older than Purvi.

A. True

B. False

C. Uncertain

Answer : B. False

Explanation : Breaking down the problem logically, we find Ritika is older than Bhumi (R > B) and Purvi is older than Ritika (P > R). Therefore, by transitivity, Purvi is also older than Bhumi (P > R > B). Now, if the third statement says that Bhumi is older than Purvi (B > P), it clearly contradicts the information we have. Thus, the third statement is False, and option B is the correct answer.

8. Read the below passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Five roommates Jasmine, Deeksha, Gauri, Kritika, and Veena each do one housekeeping task mopping, sweeping, laundry, vacuuming, or dusting one day a week, Monday through Friday.

* Veena does not vacuum and does not do her task on Tuesday.

* Deeksha does the dusting, and does not do it on Monday or Friday.

* The mopping is done on Thursday.

* Gauri does her task, which is not vacuuming, on Wednesday.

* The laundry is done on Friday, and not by Kritika.

* Jasmine does her task on Monday.

8a) What day does Kritika do her task?

A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Wednesday

D. Thursday

E. Friday

Answer : E. Friday

Explanation : Jasmine does her task on Monday. Deeksha does the dusting, but not on Monday or Friday, so she could do it on Tuesday or Wednesday. The mopping is done on Thursday, so it's not Kritika’s task. Gauri does her task on Wednesday, and it’s not vacuuming, so she could be sweeping or dusting. The laundry is done on Friday and is not done by Kritika. Therefore, Kritika must be doing the vacuuming on Friday, making option E the correct answer.

8b) What task does Veena do?

A. Dusting

B. Mopping

C. Vacuuming

D. Laundry

C. Sweeping 

Answer : E. Sweeping

Explanation : Veena does not vacuum, and she does not do her task on Tuesday. Deeksha does the dusting on a day other than Monday and Friday. Gauri does her task on Wednesday, and it’s not vacuuming. The only available task for Veena that isn’t restricted by other conditions is sweeping. Therefore, Veena does sweeping, and option E is the correct answer. 

8c) When does Deeksha do the dusting?

A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Wednesday

D. Thursday

E. Friday

Answer : B. Tuesday

Explanation : Deeksha does dusting, and it is explicitly stated that she does not do it on Monday or Friday. Gauri does her task on Wednesday, and Veena does her task on Tuesday. Thus, Deeksha must do the dusting on Tuesday, as it’s the only day left for her. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

9. Closely observe the number and letter pattern in the given series. Select the option which will complete the series.

G₁HI, JK₂L, MNO₃, ___ , ST₅U

A. PQR₃

B. PQ₄R

C. P₄QR

D. P₃QR

Answer : C. P₄QR

Explanation : The first letter of each pattern is increasing alphabetically: G → J → M → P → S in the manner: 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 → 5. The second and third letters follow a continuous pattern in the alphabet: HI → KL → NO → QR → TU. Thus, the next pattern must have the letters PQR. As for the numbers, they too increase by one in each pattern: 1 → 2(+1) → 3(+1) → 4(+1) → 5(+1) and also jump their positions by one place in the next pattern. By that logic, the pattern PQR must have the number 4 in it in the first place. Therefore, P₄QR is the correct response, making option C the correct answer. 

10. Read the passage given below carefully and determine which of the following statements is true.

Hardik is ten years old. For three years, he has been asking his parents for a dog. His parents have told him that they believe a dog would not be happy in an apartment, but they have given him permission to have a cat. Hardik has not yet decided what kind of cat he would like to have.

A. Hardik's parents like cats better than they like dogs.

B. Hardik and his parents would like to move.

C. Hardik does not like cats.

D. Hardik and his parents live in an apartment.

Answer : D. Hardik and his parents live in an apartment.

Explanation : The passage clearly mentions that Hardik’s parents believe that a dog would not be happy in an apartment. This implies that the family lives in an apartment. There is little evidence that Hardik’s parents like cats better because they simply suggested a cat as an alternative to a dog. Additionally, there is practically no evidence that the family plans on moving. Therefore, only the statement ‘Hardik and his parents live in an apartment’ is True, making option D the correct answer.

11. Read the passage given below and answer the question that follows.

There is a shift in our economy from a manufacturing to a service orientation. The increase in service-sector will require the managers to work more with people rather than with objects and things from the assembly line.

Which statement is the most logical here?

A. Managers should have a balanced mind.

B. Assembly lines will exist in service organizations.

C. Interpersonal skills will become more important in the future work place.

D. Manufacturing organizations ignore the importance of people.

D. Service organizations will not deal with objects and things.

Answer : C. Interpersonal skills will become more important in the future work place.

Explanation : The passage discusses the shift from manufacturing to service industries. It indicates that managers will need to work with people rather than objects, implying that interpersonal skills will be increasingly important in service-oriented roles.
Thus, only option C is the most logical conclusion.

12. You’re given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming both statements to be absolutely true, determine which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements.

Statement: All books are dogs. All pens are dogs.

Conclusion I: All books are pens.

Conclusion II: Some pens are books.

A. Only I follows

B. Only II follows

C. Either I or II follows

D. Neither I nor II follows

E. Both I and II follow

Answer : B. Only II follows

Explanation : The two statements provided describe a relationship where books and pens are subsets of dogs. However, it doesn’t imply that every book is also a pen, or vice versa. Thus, conclusion I is not necessarily true. On the other hand, conclusion II is true because since both books and pens are subsets of the set of dogs, it is possible for some pens to be books. The conclusion doesn’t make an absolute claim like Conclusion I, so it holds logically. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

13. What number will correctly complete the following series? 

65, 65, 49, 49, 33, 33, ?

A. 25

B. 22

C. 20

D. 17

Answer : D. 17

Explanation : Upon breaking down the sequence, we notice that the numbers are alternating between two identical values. The pattern between the numbers looks like: 65 to 49 (Decrease by 16) and 49 to 33 (Decrease by 16). So, continuing this pattern, we calculate 33 - 16 = 17. Thus, the next number in the series will be 17, making option D the correct answer.

14. You are given three true statements: Fact 1, Fact 2, and Fact 3 followed by three more statements (labeled I, II, and III). Based on the information provided, you need to determine whether any of the statements is also a fact.

Fact 1: Some pens don’t write.

Fact 2: All red pens write.

Fact 3: Some writing materials are pens.

I - Some writing materials are red.

II - Some blue writing materials don’t write.

III - Some writing materials don’t write.

A. Only I is fact

B. I and III are facts

C. I and II are facts

D. None of them are facts

Answer : B. I and III are facts

Explanation : Fact 1 says that some pens don’t write. This implies that some writing materials (which include pens) do not write. Fact 2 says that all red pens write. This tells us that all pens in the ‘red pen’ category do indeed write. Fact 3 confirms that some writing materials are pens, which is directly stated. Now, based on this information, let’s evaluate the statements:

• Statement I: This is true because Fact 2 indirectly confirms that red pens are part of the writing materials group.
• Statement II: There’s no information in the facts that directly supports or negates this claim. The facts talk about red pens and some pens not writing, but not specifically about blue pens. So, this is not necessarily a fact.
• Statement III: This is true because Fact 1 clearly states that some pens (a type of writing material) don’t write, so this statement is correct.

Thus, statements I and III are also facts, making option B the correct answer.

15. If the day after tomorrow is Tuesday, what was the day three days before day before yesterday?

A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Sunday

D. Wednesday

Answer : B. Tuesday

Explanation : Let’s break this down step by step. If the day after tomorrow is Tuesday, today must be Sunday. Next, the day before yesterday would be Friday which makes Tuesday the three days before Friday. Therefore, the correct option is option B, Tuesday. 

16. Given below is a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II, and III. Assume everything in the statement is true and on the basis of the information, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follows.

Some mosquito strains have become immune to chloroquine - a medicine used to treat malaria patients. 

I - Scientists must develop an alternate treatment for patients affected by these mosquitoes. 

II - Chloroquine must not be administered anymore.

III - Tests must be conducted on all patients to determine which mosquito caused malaria in them.

A. Only I must follow

B. Only I and II must follow

C. None of them follow

D. Only I and III must follow

E. All options must follow

Answer : D. Only I and III must follow

Explanation : Course of action I logically follows from the statement, as some strains of mosquitoes have become immune to chloroquine. Developing an alternate treatment is a logical response to this issue. Course of action II does not necessarily follow since chloroquine is still effective for non-resistant mosquito strains. Course of action III also logically follows since only tests would determine which strain of mosquitoes is affecting the patient and what medicine needs to be administered on them. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. 

17. Identify the odd one out from this list.

A. 145

B. 549

C. 808

D. 225

Answer : D. 225

Explanation : By analyzing the series, it’s evident that each number follows the pattern where the middle number is the difference between the right and left numbers: 5 - 1 = 4, 9 - 5 = 4, and 8 - 8 = 0. In the case of number 225, the logic doesn’t hold since 5 - 2 2. Therefore, 225 is the odd one out, making option D the correct answer.

18. Given below are three statements. Based on the first two statements, determine whether the third statement is true, false, or uncertain.

All tulips are flowers.

Some flowers are orange.

Therefore, some tulips are orange.

A. True

B. False

C. Uncertain

Answer : C. Uncertain 

Explanation : Statement 1 tells us that all tulips are flowers, but it doesn’t specify that all flowers are tulips. Statement 2 says that some flowers are orange, but it doesn’t specify which flowers are orange. From these two facts, we cannot conclusively determine if any of the tulips are orange. It is possible, but not certain, that some tulips are orange. Thus, the conclusion is uncertain, making option C the correct answer.

19. Which of the following words represents something which is necessary for the underlined word?

I was very lucky to get Durjoy Dutta’s autograph.

A. Pen

B. Writer

C. Signature

D. Notebook

Answer : C. Signature

Explanation : In this context, an autograph is a signature. To get an autograph, a signature is essential as it's a written form of identification or recognition by the person signing. The other objects aren’t absolutely necessary since an autograph can be given with anything other than a pen (say a marker), any one other than a writer can give the autograph (say an actor), and an autograph can be given on anything other than a notebook (say a t-shirt). Therefore, the word that is necessary for ‘autograph’ is signature, making the correct answer option C.

20. Which of the following options will replace the ? in the image?

                                                    (a)            (b)           (c)          (d)  

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : A. (a) 

Explanation : By analyzing the relationship between mountains and the crocodile in the first row we understand that mountains denote a place where crocodiles can’t naturally exist. Following that logic, a starfish is the only option which can’t naturally exist in a desert, where cactus are found. Therefore, the correct answer is option A.

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Having discussed the logical reasoning aptitude questions, it’s time to turn our attention to another critical aspect of aptitude tests, verbal reasoning.

Verbal Reasoning Aptitude Interview Questions for Freshers

Verbal reasoning is another critical component of aptitude tests, assessing your ability to understand and reason using concepts framed in words. It evaluates skills such as logical thinking, comprehension, and the ability to draw inferences from written information. Your ability to decode language, derive meaning from complex statements, and form logical connections from the given written text is tested. For freshers, excelling in verbal reasoning can significantly enhance performance in interviews and competitive exams.

Here are a few interesting verbal reasoning aptitude interview questions you can expect to find in your fresher interview.

1. If P + Q means P is the brother of Q; P - Q means P is the sister of Q and P x Q means P is the father of Q. Which of the following means that A is the son of B?

A. B - C x A + D

B. D - A + C x B

C. C + B - D x A

D. B x C - A + D

Answer : D. B x C - A + D

Explanation : In this problem, the symbols represent relationships: ‘+’ means brother, ‘-’ means sister, and ‘x’ means father. So, ‘B x C’ means B is the father of C, ‘C - A’ means C is the sister of A, and ‘A + D’ means A is the brother of D. Therefore, the correct sequence is ‘B x C - A + D’, which can be interpreted as ‘B is the father of C, C is the sister of A, and A is the brother of D’. Since B is the father of C, and C is A’s sister, this correctly states that A is the son of B. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

2. There are 8 houses in a line and in each house only one girl lives with the conditions as given below:

Jyoti is not the neighbour of Simar.

Harshita is just next to the left of Latika.

There is at least one to the left of Latika.

Payal lives in one of the two houses in the middle.

Manisha lives in between Payal and Latika.

If at least one lives to the right of Roshni and Harshita is not between Tanu and Latika, then which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. Roshni is not at the left end.

B. Roshni is in between Simar and Tanu.

C. Tanu is in between Payal and Jyoti.

D. There are three persons to the right of Payal.

Answer : C. Tanu is in between Payal and Jyoti.

Explanation : Let's break down the conditions logically. Since Payal is in one of the two middle houses, she can be in position 4 or 5. Manisha lives between Payal and Latika, which means Latika could be in position 3 or 6. Harshita is just next to the left of Latika, so Harshita could be in position 2 or 5. Given ‘at least one person lives to the right of Roshni’, she cannot be in position 1. Therefore, Roshni could be in any position from 2 to 8. Based on the above, ‘Tanu is in between Payal and Jyoti’ is not correct because it contradicts the arrangement of others based on the conditions. The positions of others, like Simar, Harshita, and Latika, do not allow Tanu to fit between Payal and Jyoti. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

3. Choose the correct option based on the given statement.

Yesterday I saw an ice cube which had already melted due to the heat from the nearby stove.

A. Always true

B. Sometimes true

C. Never true

D. Often true

Answer : C. Never true

Explanation : The statement is logically incorrect, as once the ice cube has ‘already’ melted, the ice cube ceases to exist and there would be just a small puddle of water on the surface instead, which the observer would have seen. There is no way for the observer to see the ice cube once it has already melted, therefore the statement can never be true, making option C the correct answer.

4. A man walks 3 km towards the north and then turns to the left. After walking 5 km he turns to the left and walks another 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?

A. West

B. North-Wast

C. South-West

D. South

Answer : C. South-West

Explanation : Let’s visualize the man’s movement. He first walks 3 km north. He then turns left, which is now west, and walks 5 km. He turns left again, which is now south, and walks another 5 km. Therefore, he is now in the south-west direction, with respect to his starting point, which means the correct answer is option C. 

5. Given below is a question followed by two statements I and II. Determine whether the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Question: Charu was born in which year?

Statement I: She is 32 years younger than her mother.

Statement II: Her brother, born in 1999, is 23 years younger than his mother.

A. I is sufficient to answer

B. II is sufficient to answer

C. Neither I nor II are sufficient

D. Both I and II are sufficient

E. Either I and II are sufficient 

Answer : D. Both I and II are sufficient

Explanation : Statement I tells us the difference in age between Charu and her mother while statement II tells us about the difference between Charu and her brother, i.e., 32 - 23 = 9 years. This means Charu is 9 years older than her brother, who was born in 1999. This leads us to the conclusion that Charu was born in 1990. Therefore, both of the statements together are sufficient to answer the question, making option D the correct answer.

6. In the following venn diagram, rectangle represents men, triangle represents educated, circle represents urban, and square represents government employees. Which one of the following represents women who are urban as well as government employees?

A. 13

B. 10

C. 7

D. 6

Answer : B. 10

Explanation : In the above venn diagram, men are represented by a rectangle. Thus, everyone falling outside the rectangle is a woman. Now, to determine women who are urban and government employees, we need to find the number at the intersection of circle and square but outside the rectangle, which is 10. Therefore option B is the correct answer.

7. Hill’ is related to ‘Mountain’ in the same way that ‘River’ is related to?

A. Dyke

B. Tank

C. Course

D. Swimming 

Answer : B. Tank

Explanation : ‘Hill’ is related to the ‘Mountain’ in the way that it’s its smaller version, meaning that a hill is a smaller version of a mountain. By that logic, ‘tank’ is the smaller version of a river, which makes option B the correct answer.

8. In a language where ‘WAGON’ is written as 24281615, what is ‘SWING’ written as?

A. 23424514

B. 202410158

C. 2127162119

D. 221051722

Answer : B. 202410158

Explanation : The cipher here is based on the position of each letter in the English alphabet. For example, W is the 23rd letter, A is the 1st, G is the 7th, O is the 15th, and N is the 14th. In the cipher, each letter is denoted by adding one to its relative position in the alphabet series. So, WAGON becomes 24 2 8 16 15. By applying that logic, SWING will be S (19 + 1), W (23 + 1), I (9 + 1), N (14 + 1), and G (7 + 1), which is 20 24 10 15 8. Therefore, the correct answer is option B. 

9. Choose the word which is different from the other four words.

A. Arachnophobia

B. Teraphobia 

C. Batrachophobia

D. . Cynophobia

E. Elurophobia 

Answer : B. Teraphobia

Explanation : Arachnophobia is the fear of spiders, Batrachophobia is the fear of amphibians, Cynophobia is the fear of dogs, and Elurophobia is the fear of cats. All these terms represent different phobias related to different animals. On the other hand, Teraphobia is the fear of monsters which doesn’t fit with the other animal-based phobias. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

10. Pointing to a woman, Daksh said, “She’s the daughter of the only child of my grandmother.” How is the woman related to Daksh?

A. Mother

B. Sister

C. Aunt

D. Cousin

Answer : B. Sister

Explanation : Daksh’s grandmother has only one child, who is Daksh’s mother or father. Now, if the woman is the daughter of this only child, she has to be the daughter of Daksh’s mother or father, meaning she is Daksh’s sister. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

11. What is found necessarily in a race?

A. Audience

B. Track

C. Referee 

D. Competitors

Answer : D. Competitors

Explanation : For it to be classified as a race, it has to occur between two or more people,i.e., competitors. Since a race doesn’t need to be viewed by an audience to be classified as one, ‘audience’ is not a necessity. Likewise, ‘track’ isn’t a necessity since races can happen away from tracks as well. Lastly, not all races require a ‘referee’ to be counted as one, thus, even that is not a necessary requirement. But unless competitors are present, it can’t be called a race. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

12. How is ‘DATE’ written in a language in which ‘DEN’ is written as $*^ and ‘TRAP’ is written as @%!&?

A. $@%!

B. $!@*

C. @*!^

D. !*@$

Answer : B. $!@*

Explanation : By studying the cipher, it’s evident that D is $, E is *, N is ^, T is @, R is %, A is !, and P is &. Therefore, D A T E will be coded as $ ! @ *, making option B the correct answer.

13. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

Six boys are sitting in a circle facing to the centre of the circle. They are A, B, C, D, E, and F. E is not between B and D but some other one. A is next to the left of F. C is 4th to the right of A.

13a) What is the position of E?

A. Just next to the right of B

B.Second to the left of A

C. Between B and C

D. To the immediate right of F

Answer : B. Second to the left of A

Explanation : To solve this, let’s visualize the positions in the circle. ‘A’ is placed next to ‘F’ on the left, so F cannot be next to A on the right. ‘C’ is 4th to the right of ‘A’. ‘E’ is mentioned not to be between ‘B’ and ‘D’, so we will place E in a position that doesn’t violate this condition. Considering the constraints, ‘E’ should sit second to the left of ‘A’. Hence, the final order of the positions is A, F, C, D, E, B. This clearly shows that E is sitting second to the left of A, making option B the correct answer.

13b) Which of the following statements is not true ?

A. D is just next to the right to C

B. E is just next to the right of F

C. C is second to the left of E

D. A is second to the right of C

Answer : B. E is just next to the right of F

Explanation : Based on our arrangement, E is seated second to the left of A, and therefore, not immediately to the right of F. Thus, the correct answer is option B.

13c) If A and C interchange their positions then which of the following pairs will sit together ?

A. CE

B. AF

C. FE

D. BF

Answer : B. AF

Explanation : If A and C swap places, A will be placed where C was, and C will take A's position. Given this change, the pair that will sit together is AF. Therefore, option B is the correct answer. 

14. Choose the word which is different from the other four words.

A. Cassowary

B. Emu

C. Kiwi

D. Ostrich

E. Kakapo 

Answer : D. Ostrich

Explanation : The key to solving this question lies in recognizing that all the other birds listed—Cassowary, Emu, Kiwi, and Kakapo—are flightless birds that are native to the Australasia (Australia and New Zealand) region. However, the Ostrich, although also a flightless bird, is native to the African continent, setting it apart from the others. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

15. Sakshi travels 5 km north, then 6 km east, then 10 km south. How far is she from her starting point?

A. 6 km East

B. 7.5 km South

C. 7.8 km South-East

D. 7 km South

Answer : C. 7.8 km South-East

Explanation : To find out how far Sakshi is from her starting point, we need to calculate her net displacement. First, she moves 5 km north, followed by 6 km east, and finally, 10 km south. Thus, vertically, she moves 5 km north and 10 km south, which gives a net southward movement of 5 km (10 - 5) while horizontally, she moves 6 km east. This way she is 6 km to the east and 5 km to the south of her starting point. Using the Pythagorean theorem:

Displacement =  (62+52) = 36+25 = 61 ≈ 7.81 km

Therefore, Sakshi is 7.8 km south-east from her starting position, making option C the correct answer. 

16. Study the following figure and answer the questions given below.

16a) How many educated people are employed?

A. 8

B. 14

C. 13

D. 16

Answer : C. 13

Explanation : Since the bigger circle represents the educated people and the triangle represents the employed people, educated employed people lie at the intersection of the two figures, i.e., 8 and 5, which amounts to 13. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

16b) How many uneducated backward people are employed?

A. 2

B. 8

C. 6

D. None of the above

Answer : A. 2

Explanation : Since the bigger circle represents the educated people, everyone outside the bigger circle is uneducated. To find uneducated, backward employed people, we need to find all people who lie at the intersection of the smaller circle and the triangle, but outside the bigger circle, i.e., 2. Therefore, the correct answer is option A.

17. If 3&4 = 15, 6&7 = 48, and 5&9 = 50, what is 8&13?

A. 106

B. 112

C. 116

D. 110

Answer : B. 112

Explanation : By analyzing the series, we observe the underlying pattern as follows: 

For 3&4 = 15: Multiply 3 and 4 and add 3 → (3  4) + 3 = 12 + 3 = 15.
For 6&7 = 48: Multiply 6 and 7 and add 6 → (6  7) + 6 = 42 + 6 = 48.
For 5&9 = 50: Multiply 5 and 9 and add 5 → (5  9) + 5 = 45 + 5 = 50.

Thus, for 8&13, we use the same logic:

(8  13) + 8 = 104 + 8 = 112

Hence, 8&13 equals 112, and option B is the correct answer.

18.  If A is the son of B, and C is B's sister, D is C's mother, and E is D's husband, how is E related to A?

A. Grandfather

B. Uncle

C. Father

D. Brother 

Answer : A. Grandfather

Explanation : A is the son of B and C is B's sister. This means C is A's aunt. Since D is C's mother, this makes D A's grandmother. And finally, since E is D's husband, it means E is A's grandfather. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

19. Answer the given question on the basis of the information given below.

Devika, Mayank, Nitin, Aakriti and Parth are standing facing to the North in a playground such as given below:

Mayank is at a distance of 40 cm to the right of Aakriti.

Devika is at a distance of 60 cm south of Mayank.

Nitin is at a distance of 25 cm west of Aakriti.

Parth is at a distance of 90 cm north of Devika.

If a boy starting from Nitin, met Aakriti, then Mayank, then Devika, and in the end Parth and the whole time he walked in a straight line, then how much total distance did he cover?

A. 245 cm

B. 215 cm

C. 155 m

D. 185 m

Answer : B. 215 cm

Explanation : If a boy starts from Nitin (25 cm west of Aakriti) and walks to Aakriti, he covers 25 cm. Then, he walks to Mayank, who is 40 cm to the right of Aakriti. The total distance from Nitin to Mayank would be 40 + 25 = 65 cm (since he needs to walk 25 cm towards Aakriti and 40 cm to the right to reach Mayank). Next, the boy walks from Mayank to Devika, who is 60 cm south of Mayank. This adds 60 cm to the total distance. Finally, he walks to Parth, who is 90 cm north of Devika, so he walks another 90 cm towards the north. Upon summing up all the distances, we find:

25 + 40 + 60 + 90 = 215 cm

Hence, the boy covers a total distance of 215 cm, making option B the correct answer.

20. Study the venn diagram given below and answer the questions that follow.

20a) How many people drink orange and apple juice but not mango juice?

A. 23

B. 12

C. 19

D. 7

Answer : B. 12

Explanation : Since the circle represents people who drink mango juice, everyone outside the circle are people who don’t drink mango juice. To find people who drink orange juice (lie in the triangle) and apple juice (lie in the rectangle) but not mango juice, we need to find people who lie on the intersection between the triangle and the rectangle but outside of the circle, i.e., 12. Therefore, the correct answer is option B.

20b) How many people drink apple juice?

A. 78

B. 43

C. 54

D. None of the above

Answer : A. 78

Explanation : In order to find everyone who drinks apple juice, we need to add up all people who fall in the rectangle, i.e., 25 + 12 + 7 + 16 + 18 = 78. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

20c) How many people drink all three juices?

A. 12

B. 16

C. 7

D. None of the above

Answer : C. 7

Explanation : To find people who drink all three juices, we need to find all people who lie at the intersection of all three figures, i.e., 7 people. Therefore, the correct answer is option C. 

Now, let’s shift gears and explore non-verbal reasoning aptitude interview questions for freshers, where your visual perception and spatial reasoning skills take the spotlight.

Non-Verbal Reasoning Aptitude Interview Questions for Freshers

Unlike verbal reasoning, which tests your ability to comprehend and analyze written information, non-verbal reasoning evaluates your capacity to interpret visual data, patterns, and shapes. This section typically includes questions on pattern recognition, shapes, symmetry, and logical sequencing.

Let’s take a closer look at some typical non-verbal reasoning aptitude questions you might encounter in your next aptitude test.

1. Which one will replace the question mark ?

A. 9

B. 10

C. 12

D. 8

Answer : C. 12

Explanation : By analyzing the figures, we realize that the numbers on the branches are multiples of the root number — twice multiplied on the left branch, thrice multiplied on the central branch, and five-times multiplied on the right branch. Thus, the root number of the third figure has to be the highest common factor (HCF) of the three numbers, i.e., 24, 36, and 60, which measures to 12. Therefore, option C is the correct answer. 

2. Which of the following venn diagrams indicates the best relation between artist, singer, and painter?

Answer : D. 

Explanation : Since both singers and painters are also artists, they can be called the subsets of the superset, ‘artists’. However, the sets ‘singers’ and ‘painters’ themselves don’t overlap, therefore, they are different sets represented by different circles. By this logic, only figure D corresponds to the relationship among the three entities, making option D the correct answer.

3. Which of the following options most closely resembles the mirror image of the given word?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer : C. 3

Explanation : When solving mirror image questions, the key is to decode the placement of the mirror. In the above image, the mirror is placed on the word’s right side, thus, the left and right sides of the word will swap places. Additionally, since MALAYALAM is a palindrome (reads the same from both ends), it’s easier to be confused when finding its mirror image. Therefore, by applying all the above logic, option C is the correct answer.

4. If a transparent sheet (x) is folded along the dotted line, which of the following options will be the resultant pattern?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : B. (b)

Explanation : The first thing we need to do is find out the direction in which the sheet is being folded. In this question, we realize that the sheet is being folded towards the left side. Judging by the sizes and the positions of the triangle and the circle on their respective sides, it’s clear that the circle (being smaller than the triangle) will be moved inside the triangle once the triangle is folded onto it. Only figure (b) corresponds to this updated image, thus, option B is the correct answer.

5. The figure x denotes a unique placement of dots. Choose among the following options the image which best represents that placement.

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : B. (b)

Explanation : By analyzing the question figure, we realize that one of the dots lies in the region common to the circle and the square only and the other dot lies in the region common to the circle and the triangle only. This pattern is solely repeated only in the figure (b) since it consists of both the types of regions. On the other hand, none of the other figures have a region common to the circle and the triangle only. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.

6. Which one will replace the question mark ?

A. 109

B. 105

C. 103

D. 107

Answer : C. 103

Explanation : Upon analyzing the given series for a pattern, we find that each new number is obtained by multiplying the previous number by two and then subtracting increasing multiples of one from that. Therefore, (5 2 - 1 ) = 9, (9 2 - 2 ) = 16, (16 2 - 3 ) = 29, and (29 2 - 4 ) = 54. By continuing that pattern we find that

(54 2 - 5 ) = 103

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

7. Three different positions P, Q, and R of a dice are shown in the figures given below. Which number lies at the bottom face in position Q?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer : C. 3

Explanation : By studying the positions P and Q of the dice, we conclude that 1, 5, 6, and 3 lie adjacent to 4. Therefore, 2 must lie opposite 4. Next, from positions P and R of the dice, we find out that 4, 3, 2, and 5 lie adjacent to 6. Therefore, 1 must lie opposite 6. From this information, we can deduce that 2 lies opposite 4, 1 lies opposite 6, and consequently 5 lies opposite 3. Since 5 lies on the top in position Q, 3 must lie on the bottom face, making option C the correct answer.

8. Which of the following figures completes the pattern in figure x?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : C. (c)

Explanation : By analyzing the pattern, we deduce that the image on the right side is the mirror image of the image on the left side. By applying that logic, figure (c) is an exact match to replace the empty space. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

9. Which of the following figures from the four alternatives given below would complete the figure matrix?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : D. (d)

Explanation : By analyzing the pattern, we realize that there are 3 types of shadings of circles — a circle is unshaded, another circle has its right half shaded with vertical lines and yet another circle has its upper half shaded with horizontal lines. There are three specified positions of the two triangles each of which is used only once in a row. Also, two of the figures in each row have one triangle shaded. With this logic, only figure (d) matches the pattern, making option D the correct answer.

10. Which of the following venn diagrams indicate the relationship between Americans, dark-haired people, and fair skinned people?

Answer : C. 

Explanation : The relationship between the three sections — Americans, dark-haired people, and fair skinned people — is an overlapping one. There can be Americans who are dark-haired, Americans who are fair skinned, and people who are both dark-haired and fair-skinned. Only figure (c) is the one that matches this relationship since in it all three circles overlap each other. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Aptitude interview questions are just the beginning! Topmate’s career mentorship services guide you through every step of your career journey, ensuring you’re fully prepared for success.

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11. Choose the most appropriate figure that represents the figure x as it is rotated.

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

 Answer : B. (b)

Explanation : By analyzing the angle of rotation for the figure x, we realize that the image rotates clockwise by 90 degrees. In figure x, the arrows point up-left, down-left, down-right, and up-right which when rotated once clockwise should point down-right, up-right, up-left, and down-left. This corresponds to two figures (a) and (b). However, upon closer examination we observe that even the star shape in the center has rotated clockwise in figure (b) but stays the exact same in figure (a). This means that the most appropriate figure is figure (b), making option B the correct answer.

12. If a transparent sheet (x) is folded along the dotted line, which of the following options will be the resultant pattern?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : B. (b)

Explanation : To solve the paper folding problems, it is necessary to understand the direction in which the sheet is being folded. In this question, the sheet is being folded towards the right side. Next, we need to mirror the left-side figure and trace its new position on the right side. By doing so we realize that only the figure (b) corresponds perfectly to the updated figure, thus, option B is the correct answer.

13. The figure x denotes a unique placement of dots. Choose among the following options the image which best represents that placement.

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : B. (b)

Explanation : After carefully analyzing figure x, it’s evident that one of the dots lies in the rectangle alone, another dot lies in the region common to the circle and the triangle only, and the third dot lies in the region common to the circle, the square, and the triangle only. There is no region common to the circle and the triangle only in figures (a) and (d), while figure (c) is devoid of a region which lies in the rectangle alone. Only figure (b) contains all the three types of regions, making option B the correct answer. 

14. If the sheet paper given in figure x is folded, which of the following corresponding boxes would it create? Choose the corresponding option.

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : B. (b)

Explanation : In the given figure x, when the sheet is folded to form a cube, then 'A' appears opposite 'D', 'F' appears opposite 'B', and 'E' appears opposite 'C'. By this logic, it’s impossible to create the cube in figure (a) which shows 'F' adjacent to 'B' and the cube in figure (c) since it shows 'E' adjacent to 'C'. Likewise, the cube in figure (d) showing ‘A’ adjacent to 'D' is also not possible. Thus, only the cube in figure (b) can be formed, making option B the correct answer.

15. Which of the following figures completes the pattern in the figure x?

                            x                         (a)                   (b)                    (c)                   (d)

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : C. (c) 

Explanation : Upon analyzing the pattern in the figure x, we see that the upper left quadrant has a 3*3 matrix pattern, which reduces to 3*2 in the upper right quadrant and becomes 2*3 in the lower left quadrant. By this logic, the matrix in the lower right quadrant should be 2*2, which corresponds to figure (c) in the answers. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

16. Which of the following figures can be created using the components given in the figure x?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : A. (a)

Explanation : Analyzing the given shapes in the figure x, we can deduce that only figure (a) can be created with them, as is evident from the image below. 

Therefore, option A is the correct answer. 

17.  Which of the following figures from the four alternatives given below would complete the figure matrix?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : B. (b) 

Explanation : By analyzing the pattern among the figures, we realize that the final figure in the series is created by putting together all the elements that were not common in the first two figures. Therefore, by that logic, our answer figure should combine the two triangles and three dots from the first two figures to create it. This makes option B the correct answer.

18. Which one will replace the question mark ?

A. 30

B. 31

C. 33

D. 32

Answer : C. 33

Explanation : By analyzing the pattern in the figures, we realize that the number inside the triangle is the result of the product of the numbers inside the first two blocks added to the number inside the third block. For instance, 7  8 + 5 = 61. By that logic, 

6  4 + 9 = 33

Therefore, option C is the correct answer. 

19. Choose the option that most accurately represents the mirror image of the given word.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer : B. 2

Explanation : When solving mirror image questions, the key is to decode the placement of the mirror. Since the mirror is placed on the right side of the word in this question, the left and right sides of the word will swap places while there would be no effect on the top or bottom edge of the word. Thus, by that logic, option B is the correct answer.

20. Which of the following options given below continues the series that is denoted in the five problem figures?

A. (a)

B. (b)

C. (c)

D. (d)

Answer : C. (c) 

Explanation : By analyzing the pattern in the question figure, we notice that the arrowhead first moves by two places and then by one place. Next, it moves by three places, before moving by one place again. By this progression, the answer figure must have the arrowhead moved by four places, i.e., figure (c), making option C the correct answer.

Having discussed non-verbal reasoning questions, let’s explore some psychometric aptitude questions that help employers assess you beyond your technical skills.

Psychometric Aptitude Interview Questions for Freshers

These assessments go beyond evaluating technical skills; they delve into your cognitive abilities, attention to detail, and other behavioural tendencies. Employers use them to gauge how well you might fit into the organizational culture and how you approach problem-solving and decision-making.​

Here are some commonly asked psychometric aptitude interview questions for freshers.

1. Which of the following letters doesn’t belong in the series?

T, P, Q, U, C, Y, E, R

A. P

B. C

C. Q

D. None of the above

Answer : B. C

Explanation : At the first glance, all the letters T, P, Q, U, C, Y, E, and R seem unrelated. But upon closer examination, we realize that all the letters, except the letter C, lie on the topmost alphabet row of a standard-QWERTY keyboard. ‘C’ actually lies on the last row of  the keyboard. Therefore, C is the odd one out in the series, making option B the correct answer.

2. Count the number of blocks in the image given below.

A. 16

B. 11

C. 19

D. 17

E. 14

Answer : D. 17

Explanation : In the figure, we can see that at the front of the structure there are 6 blocks which do not have any more stacked on top of them. Behind them are four blocks which are stacked on four more unseen blocks, thus, 4 + 4 = 8. Behind that is one more block which is the top block in a stack of three, thus, 1 + 1 + 1 = 3. When we add these up we get 6 + 8 + 3 = 17. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

3. Carefully read the following facts. Based on the information given in them, answer the question that follows.

Statement 1: Kajal lives in a small apartment.

Statement 2: Avantika lives in a big apartment.

Statement 3: There are no big apartments in Liliput.

Statement 4: Small apartments have one bedroom.

Which statement MUST be true?

A. Avantika lives in Liliput.

B. Kajal lives in Liliput.

C. Avantika and Kajal live in the same city. 

D. Kajal’s apartment has one bedroom.

E. Big apartments have one bedroom.

Answer : D. Kajal’s apartment has one bedroom.

Explanation : From the given facts, we know that small apartments have one bedroom (Statement 4). Since Kajal lives in a small apartment (Statement 1), it logically follows that her apartment has one bedroom. 

Just being aware of the various aptitude interview questions asked during interviews isn’t enough; you must also have a properly-curated preparation plan to tackle the questions.

Essential Resources for Aptitude Test Preparation in India

If you're a fresher preparing for job interviews, mastering aptitude tests is essential. In 2025, there are numerous effective resources—books, websites, practice tests, and online platforms—to help you sharpen your problem-solving skills and improve accuracy.

Below is a streamlined guide to some of the best tools available:

1. Recommended Books for Aptitude Test Preparation

Books remain a reliable resource for structured aptitude preparation. Here are some of the most widely used by Indian aspirants:

• Quantitative Aptitude for Competitive Examinations by R.S. Aggarwal
  Covers a wide range of topics with numerous practice problems. Ideal for SSC, Bank PO, UPSC, and other exams.
• SSC Reasoning Chapterwise and Typewise Solved Papers by Kiran
  Useful for understanding reasoning patterns through past papers.
• How to Prepare for Quantitative Aptitude for the CAT by Arun Sharma
  Though CAT-focused, its variety and depth make it great for general aptitude interviews.
• The Pearson Guide to Quantitative Aptitude by Dinesh Khattar
  Includes step-by-step explanations and a large question bank.

Make sure to use the latest editions for up-to-date content and relevant practice.

2. Top Online Platforms for Aptitude Test Preparation

Online platforms offer interactive tools, mock tests, and performance tracking. Here are some popular ones:

• GeeksforGeeks – Offers aptitude practice questions, tutorials, and a strong interview prep community.
• LearnTheta – Features concept explanations and personalized question sets for targeted practice.
• IndiaBIX – A go-to for aptitude, reasoning, and verbal questions. Includes mock tests and topic-wise quizzes.
• Testbook – Structured aptitude courses with analytics, past papers, and daily challenges.
• EduGorilla & Dogar Publishers (PDFs) – Provide downloadable aptitude practice sets for offline use.

Leverage these online platforms to enhance your aptitude skills, gain confidence, and improve your performance in freshers’ interviews.

3. Practice Tests & Mock Exams for Aptitude Interviewees

Mock tests simulate real exam conditions and help track your progress. Consistent practice boosts both speed and accuracy.

• JobTestPrep – Free sample questions with detailed explanations across various topics.
• Graduates First – Offers over 1,000 free tests in numerical, verbal, and logical reasoning.
• Naukri Campus Aptitude Test (NCAT) – Designed for freshers, with instant results and feedback.
• AssessmentDay – Full-length timed tests with solutions and analytics.
• Saville Assessment – Used by global employers for psychometric evaluations. Best for advanced prep.

Tip: Aim to take at least one 30-minute mock exam daily to stay sharp.

4. Exploring Free and Paid Resources for Aptitude Test Preparation

Free tools are great for foundational learning, while paid platforms offer deeper insights, guided practice, and structured courses. Here are a few worth exploring:

• MyGreatLearning – Free course on quantitative aptitude basics with certification.
• Practice Aptitude Tests – Offers tests in numerical, verbal, and logical reasoning with performance tracking.
• Aptitude-Test.com – Paid packages for various pre-employment and entrance exams.
• TestHQ – Paid plans with comprehensive guides, practice sets, and timed tests.

With the right mix of these resources and consistent practice, you’ll be well-equipped to tackle any aptitude test during your interview process.

Final Thoughts

Aptitude tests are designed to reveal your potential – your ability to solve problems, think critically, and apply logic to real-world situations. But acing these tests goes beyond just understanding the theory. It’s about practice, strategy, and preparation, and that’s where you need the right support to succeed.

Getting the right preparation is key to making a strong impression in your aptitude interview. While practicing on your own is helpful, there’s nothing quite like simulating the real test environment to boost your performance. Topmate steps in here as your ultimate interview preparation partner. 

With our comprehensive mock interview services, you can practice for aptitude tests just like you would in the actual interview. We offer personalized, industry-specific mock interviews where experts from various fields guide you through real-world scenarios, helping you sharpen your skills and boost your confidence.

But that’s not all. At Topmate, we’re committed to your success beyond just mock interviews. Our platform offers personalized expert advice, career guidance, mentorship for mock interviews, and job referral assistance. With industry experts ready to assist you, you’ll be better equipped to handle every aspect of the interview process. 

Don’t wait for the opportunity to knock – be prepared for when it does. Schedule your mock interview with an expert today and experience firsthand what it's like to face an aptitude test with confidence and clarity.